Timeline for Hourly pay rate calculation between Recruiting and Payroll Systems
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
25 events
when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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Jul 6 at 2:04 | answer | added | Xavier J | timeline score: 0 | |
Jul 5 at 15:33 | comment | added | Chuu | @Fattie This is super common in the US Federal Government. If your GS level means you get a $100K salary, on a biweekly paystub it'll show up as 80 hours * (salary/calculated hourly rate assuming 40 hours a week). Technically you are not supposed to work more (or less) than 80 hours. In practice, it's similar to other salaried jobs in that total work hours are not well defined. | |
Jul 5 at 12:17 | comment | added | Happy Idiot | @spickermann Fixed Hours resembles Salaried, in that they divide down an annual total in to 2 pays per month (or whatever demented alternative someone thinks is ideal) and you get that regardless of actual number of work days, sick days, holidays, vacation days, etc. It means no overtime and treating people like adults and expecting them to stick around for a year. But then you have to reckon all those leave hours, and that's the wrinkle in the rug that all the complexity gets shoved under. You can have simple pay, or simple leave accounting (no work = no pay) or simple taxation. Choose any 3. | |
Jul 5 at 6:57 | comment | added | spickermann | I am probably miss something. But how can you even reliable calculate between a yearly and an hourly rate back and forth? Not all years have the same number of work days. Not even all years have the same number of days. It is obvious to me that when I get paid a yearly rate then my hourly rate will be slightly lower in a leap year, because I will (likely) need to work one day of 8 hours more in a leap year. | |
Jul 5 at 2:03 | comment | added | Gregory Currie | @HappyIdiot If it's really not worth worrying about, then the HR person should make sure it rounds up and potentially gives an extra 20 pounds. The fact they've chosen not to, and instead shortchange the employee, yes, it is worth worrying about! | |
Jul 4 at 16:22 | history | edited | Giacomo1968 | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
Breaking up a paragraph and removing a smiley.
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Jul 4 at 13:48 | comment | added | Happy Idiot | @GregoryCurrie is 20 Pounds spread over an entire year worth making a snit? 40 pence a week? It would only matter if it was referenced to some make or break value for the total annual amount, like "over this much you pay more income tax". In what scenario is it worth worrying about? | |
Jul 4 at 12:42 | comment | added | MisterMiyagi | Why is the "total yearly salary when the successive hourly rates are used to calculate" relevant at all? As you wrote, you are promising and inputing yearly rates - so the yearly rate must be consistent, as it is set by you. | |
Jul 4 at 2:56 | comment | added | Flater | @jcaron: My guess is that an HR person has tried to create a single reusable contract format for both their hourly and salaried employees, and forgot that the world of algebra and the world of payroll calculation have very different rules regarding rounding of numbers. | |
Jul 4 at 2:52 | answer | added | Flater | timeline score: 5 | |
Jul 3 at 19:36 | comment | added | Fattie | agree with jcaron, the two things are totally different. that is some weird software, also. | |
Jul 3 at 16:48 | answer | added | Steve | timeline score: 4 | |
Jul 3 at 16:23 | comment | added | jcaron | I have a hard time understanding the issue. Usually people are either paid a fixed amount (per week, month or year), or they are paid by the hour. How can you have both in the contract/offer? | |
Jul 3 at 13:16 | comment | added | cdkMoose | This makes a strong argument for an integrated system to handle this consistently. | |
Jul 3 at 11:27 | answer | added | MikeB | timeline score: 24 | |
Jul 3 at 8:20 | comment | added | Gregory Currie | If so, that's simply not good enough. Each paycheque should use the correct calculation, and that is the one that appears in the contract. | |
Jul 3 at 8:14 | comment | added | Gregory Currie | Just for clarity here, if there is 1 penny of rounding, and 2000 working hours in a year, does this mean the company is shortchanging employees by 20 pounds each year due to rounding? | |
Jul 3 at 7:13 | review | Close votes | |||
Jul 13 at 3:05 | |||||
Jul 3 at 2:29 | history | became hot network question | |||
Jul 2 at 23:24 | answer | added | Fe2O3 | timeline score: 7 | |
Jul 2 at 19:59 | answer | added | mhoran_psprep | timeline score: 8 | |
Jul 2 at 19:10 | answer | added | nvoigt♦ | timeline score: 18 | |
Jul 2 at 18:56 | answer | added | Philip Kendall | timeline score: 8 | |
S Jul 2 at 18:29 | review | First questions | |||
Jul 2 at 19:14 | |||||
S Jul 2 at 18:29 | history | asked | Mattie | CC BY-SA 4.0 |