Timeline for Can you be charged with breaking and entering if the door was open, and the owner of the property is deceased?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
16 events
when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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Jul 6 at 14:49 | comment | added | Nzall | @LorenPechtel Maybe not a house, but there might be a bar or other semi-public building where you might be able to get changed in the restroom. | |
Jul 6 at 12:09 | history | edited | Jen |
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Jul 6 at 1:43 | comment | added | Loren Pechtel | @Nzall Think the average person is going to let a stranger come into their house and change? | |
S Jul 5 at 9:08 | history | suggested | terdon | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
minor fixes
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Jul 4 at 15:51 | comment | added | user2705196 | Obligatory comment that the answer to the literal question "can you be charged with X?" is essentially always yes. Especially if what you are doing is somewhat related to X. In the body later you inquire about something else, namely can you get the charges dismissed. But for legal questions it's crucial to be precise. | |
Jul 4 at 15:29 | review | Suggested edits | |||
S Jul 5 at 9:08 | |||||
Jul 4 at 11:02 | comment | added | Nzall | I struggle to see a situation where this hypothetical would even make sense. If you're in a city of town, you can probably find a building that isn't abandoned where you can ask the legal inhabitant whether you could quickly change. If you're in the middle of nowhere and want to change clothes, there's unlikely to be anyone nearby who would stop you, let alone a cop. So you'd need to have an area with few inhabitants, but enough for a patrolling cop to randomly encounter you. Not many places like that. | |
Jul 4 at 9:15 | comment | added | ItWasLikeThatWhenIGotHere | Are you looking a solution with no charges made? Or would accepting other charges or liability for trespass give the desired outcome? | |
Jul 4 at 9:04 | answer | added | alexg | timeline score: 11 | |
Jul 4 at 8:35 | history | became hot network question | |||
Jul 4 at 8:00 | comment | added | quarague | Even if the previous owner is deceased this does not mean 'no one owns it'. There will be some estate that inherited the property. If there are no relatives and no will the property may eventually fall to the state but under no circumstances will it be ownerless. | |
Jul 4 at 6:08 | comment | added | Nate Eldredge | In what jurisdiction is this taking place? | |
Jul 4 at 3:35 | answer | added | o.m. | timeline score: 18 | |
Jul 4 at 3:28 | answer | added | Jen | timeline score: 15 | |
S Jul 4 at 0:34 | review | First questions | |||
Jul 4 at 3:33 | |||||
S Jul 4 at 0:34 | history | asked | Lee Justice | CC BY-SA 4.0 |